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Mathematics, 30.11.2019 05:00 khalaflaf9381

The derivation in example 6.6.1 shows the taylor series for arctan(x) is valid for all x ∈ (βˆ’1,1). notice, however, that the series also converges when x = 1. assuming that arctan(x) is continuous, explain why the value of the series at x = 1 must necessarily be arctan(1). what interesting identity do we get in this case?

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The derivation in example 6.6.1 shows the taylor series for arctan(x) is valid for all x ∈ (βˆ’1,1). n...
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